For OB/GYNs Designed by OB/GYNs Delivered by OB/GYNs
AIM MCQ Tests
Number of questions in this MCQ test: 16 Suggested time for this MCQ test: 20 minutes
The GARDASIL quadrivalent HPV recombinant vaccine is indicated for prevention of all of the following conditions except ? Cervical cancer Condyloma accuminata Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), grade 2 and 3 Laryngeal papilloma Cervical intreapithelial neoplasia (CIN), grade 2 and 3 GARDASIL quardrivalent HPV recombinint vaccine should be administered intramusculary according to what schedule ? 0, 2 6 months 0, 1 ,6 months 0, 6, 12 months 0, 3, 6 months 0, 12, 60 months What percent of cervical cancers result from infection with HPV genotpes 16 and 18 ? 20% 50% 70% 90% What percent of genital warts results from infection with HPV genotypes 6 to 11 ? 20% 50% 70% 90% The quadrivalent Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) vaccine protects against all of the following HPV DNA geontypes except? 16 6 18 11 33 A 43-year-old woman is found to have an abnormal Pap smear showing HSIL. She undergoes colposcopy showing all of the following epithilial abnormalities. The patient is very apprehensive and will allow only one biopsy. If you can do only one biopsy, which of the following would you biopsy: White epithelium Coarse mosaicism Punctation Abnormal (cork- screw) vessels A 17-year-old nulliparous woman has an abnormal Pap smear. Colposcopy with biopsies document CIN limited to the ectocervix without endocervical involvement. All of the following are true EXCEPT: In adolescents, the rate of resolution of CIN I is extremely high (>60%) CIN I should be followed by repeat smears at 6 and 12 months, or with high risk HPV testing in 12 months CIN 2 in adolescents should always be treated with excision or ablation CIN 3 in adolescents should be treated with excision or ablation Assuming CIN 2/ CIN 3 have been ruled out by colposcopy, the risk of developing CIN 2 or greater during the next two years is about 10% A 30-year-old multigravida is found to have an abnormal smear at 20 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following IS NOT TRUE: A pregnant patient with ASC-H, HSIL, atypical glandular cells or adenocarcinoma is situ should undergo colposcopy without endocervical curettage Purpose of colposcopy is to exclude invasive disease Managemant of pregnancy is different in patients with low- vs. high-grade dysplasia If colposcopy shows an area of cork-screw vessels on the cervix, this should be biopsied Patients with an ASC or LSIL smear have a low-risk of having invasive disease A 40-year-old HIV-positive G3P3 is found to have an abnormal PAP smear signed out as LSIL. Colposcopy with cervical biopsies demonstrated CIN I. Which of the following is NOT TRUE: Treatment of high-grade CIN should be pursued despite high recurrence rates Women who are HIV-positve are more likely to have positive surgical margins at excisional procedures, which may cause higher rates of recurrence Standard ablative or excisional treatment is recommended for women who are HIV-positive with documented CIN 2 or CIN 3 Since CIN 1infrequently progresses in women with women with HIV, observation appears safe provided there are no other indications for treatment HIV-positive patients, not currently treated with antiretroviral, with newly diagnosed CIN 3 may initially be treated for dysplasia only with initiation of antiretrovitals A 27-year old woman undergoes a LEEP excision of the cervical tranformation zone for a diagnosis CIN 2/3. All of the following are true with EXCEPTION of : The risk of cervical cancer after treatment of CIN 2 or CIN 3 is equal to that of the general patient population After LOOP excision, the patient can be followed with high-risk HPV testing in 6 months after the LOOP excision procedure; A negative result would allow annual screening therafter. Following a positive margin with LOOP excision, reexcision may be elected, but if undertaken should be done with knowledge that the most common outcome is absence of residual dysplasia Risk of recurrent dysplasia is 5 to 12% in women with positive LEEP margins Risk of recurrent dysplasia with negative LEEP margins is 2 to 3% A 40-year-old lawyer has an "routine annual" examination with a Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk Types (DNA with Pap). The Pap smear was interpreted as negative for intraepithelial lesion/malignancy. However, the HPV test for high-risk types was positive. Which of the following is recommended? Repeat Pap smear in one year Repeat HPV testig for high-risk types in one year Repeat Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk types in 6 to 12 months Immediate colposcopy Endocervical currettage All of the following are true concerning HPV testing EXCEPT: The test is based on a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techinique Most patients with a positve result have a transient infection Can be used in conjuction with Pap smear for cervical cancer screening exclusively in women over the age of 30 A patient with an ASC-US Pap smear and a negative reflex HPV test (for high-risk types) can have her next smear in one year Over 80% of patients with a LSIL smear will have a positive HPV test for high-risk types A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
GARDASIL quardrivalent HPV recombinint vaccine should be administered intramusculary according to what schedule ? 0, 2 6 months 0, 1 ,6 months 0, 6, 12 months 0, 3, 6 months 0, 12, 60 months What percent of cervical cancers result from infection with HPV genotpes 16 and 18 ? 20% 50% 70% 90% What percent of genital warts results from infection with HPV genotypes 6 to 11 ? 20% 50% 70% 90% The quadrivalent Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) vaccine protects against all of the following HPV DNA geontypes except? 16 6 18 11 33 A 43-year-old woman is found to have an abnormal Pap smear showing HSIL. She undergoes colposcopy showing all of the following epithilial abnormalities. The patient is very apprehensive and will allow only one biopsy. If you can do only one biopsy, which of the following would you biopsy: White epithelium Coarse mosaicism Punctation Abnormal (cork- screw) vessels A 17-year-old nulliparous woman has an abnormal Pap smear. Colposcopy with biopsies document CIN limited to the ectocervix without endocervical involvement. All of the following are true EXCEPT: In adolescents, the rate of resolution of CIN I is extremely high (>60%) CIN I should be followed by repeat smears at 6 and 12 months, or with high risk HPV testing in 12 months CIN 2 in adolescents should always be treated with excision or ablation CIN 3 in adolescents should be treated with excision or ablation Assuming CIN 2/ CIN 3 have been ruled out by colposcopy, the risk of developing CIN 2 or greater during the next two years is about 10% A 30-year-old multigravida is found to have an abnormal smear at 20 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following IS NOT TRUE: A pregnant patient with ASC-H, HSIL, atypical glandular cells or adenocarcinoma is situ should undergo colposcopy without endocervical curettage Purpose of colposcopy is to exclude invasive disease Managemant of pregnancy is different in patients with low- vs. high-grade dysplasia If colposcopy shows an area of cork-screw vessels on the cervix, this should be biopsied Patients with an ASC or LSIL smear have a low-risk of having invasive disease A 40-year-old HIV-positive G3P3 is found to have an abnormal PAP smear signed out as LSIL. Colposcopy with cervical biopsies demonstrated CIN I. Which of the following is NOT TRUE: Treatment of high-grade CIN should be pursued despite high recurrence rates Women who are HIV-positve are more likely to have positive surgical margins at excisional procedures, which may cause higher rates of recurrence Standard ablative or excisional treatment is recommended for women who are HIV-positive with documented CIN 2 or CIN 3 Since CIN 1infrequently progresses in women with women with HIV, observation appears safe provided there are no other indications for treatment HIV-positive patients, not currently treated with antiretroviral, with newly diagnosed CIN 3 may initially be treated for dysplasia only with initiation of antiretrovitals A 27-year old woman undergoes a LEEP excision of the cervical tranformation zone for a diagnosis CIN 2/3. All of the following are true with EXCEPTION of : The risk of cervical cancer after treatment of CIN 2 or CIN 3 is equal to that of the general patient population After LOOP excision, the patient can be followed with high-risk HPV testing in 6 months after the LOOP excision procedure; A negative result would allow annual screening therafter. Following a positive margin with LOOP excision, reexcision may be elected, but if undertaken should be done with knowledge that the most common outcome is absence of residual dysplasia Risk of recurrent dysplasia is 5 to 12% in women with positive LEEP margins Risk of recurrent dysplasia with negative LEEP margins is 2 to 3% A 40-year-old lawyer has an "routine annual" examination with a Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk Types (DNA with Pap). The Pap smear was interpreted as negative for intraepithelial lesion/malignancy. However, the HPV test for high-risk types was positive. Which of the following is recommended? Repeat Pap smear in one year Repeat HPV testig for high-risk types in one year Repeat Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk types in 6 to 12 months Immediate colposcopy Endocervical currettage All of the following are true concerning HPV testing EXCEPT: The test is based on a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techinique Most patients with a positve result have a transient infection Can be used in conjuction with Pap smear for cervical cancer screening exclusively in women over the age of 30 A patient with an ASC-US Pap smear and a negative reflex HPV test (for high-risk types) can have her next smear in one year Over 80% of patients with a LSIL smear will have a positive HPV test for high-risk types A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
What percent of cervical cancers result from infection with HPV genotpes 16 and 18 ? 20% 50% 70% 90% What percent of genital warts results from infection with HPV genotypes 6 to 11 ? 20% 50% 70% 90% The quadrivalent Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) vaccine protects against all of the following HPV DNA geontypes except? 16 6 18 11 33 A 43-year-old woman is found to have an abnormal Pap smear showing HSIL. She undergoes colposcopy showing all of the following epithilial abnormalities. The patient is very apprehensive and will allow only one biopsy. If you can do only one biopsy, which of the following would you biopsy: White epithelium Coarse mosaicism Punctation Abnormal (cork- screw) vessels A 17-year-old nulliparous woman has an abnormal Pap smear. Colposcopy with biopsies document CIN limited to the ectocervix without endocervical involvement. All of the following are true EXCEPT: In adolescents, the rate of resolution of CIN I is extremely high (>60%) CIN I should be followed by repeat smears at 6 and 12 months, or with high risk HPV testing in 12 months CIN 2 in adolescents should always be treated with excision or ablation CIN 3 in adolescents should be treated with excision or ablation Assuming CIN 2/ CIN 3 have been ruled out by colposcopy, the risk of developing CIN 2 or greater during the next two years is about 10% A 30-year-old multigravida is found to have an abnormal smear at 20 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following IS NOT TRUE: A pregnant patient with ASC-H, HSIL, atypical glandular cells or adenocarcinoma is situ should undergo colposcopy without endocervical curettage Purpose of colposcopy is to exclude invasive disease Managemant of pregnancy is different in patients with low- vs. high-grade dysplasia If colposcopy shows an area of cork-screw vessels on the cervix, this should be biopsied Patients with an ASC or LSIL smear have a low-risk of having invasive disease A 40-year-old HIV-positive G3P3 is found to have an abnormal PAP smear signed out as LSIL. Colposcopy with cervical biopsies demonstrated CIN I. Which of the following is NOT TRUE: Treatment of high-grade CIN should be pursued despite high recurrence rates Women who are HIV-positve are more likely to have positive surgical margins at excisional procedures, which may cause higher rates of recurrence Standard ablative or excisional treatment is recommended for women who are HIV-positive with documented CIN 2 or CIN 3 Since CIN 1infrequently progresses in women with women with HIV, observation appears safe provided there are no other indications for treatment HIV-positive patients, not currently treated with antiretroviral, with newly diagnosed CIN 3 may initially be treated for dysplasia only with initiation of antiretrovitals A 27-year old woman undergoes a LEEP excision of the cervical tranformation zone for a diagnosis CIN 2/3. All of the following are true with EXCEPTION of : The risk of cervical cancer after treatment of CIN 2 or CIN 3 is equal to that of the general patient population After LOOP excision, the patient can be followed with high-risk HPV testing in 6 months after the LOOP excision procedure; A negative result would allow annual screening therafter. Following a positive margin with LOOP excision, reexcision may be elected, but if undertaken should be done with knowledge that the most common outcome is absence of residual dysplasia Risk of recurrent dysplasia is 5 to 12% in women with positive LEEP margins Risk of recurrent dysplasia with negative LEEP margins is 2 to 3% A 40-year-old lawyer has an "routine annual" examination with a Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk Types (DNA with Pap). The Pap smear was interpreted as negative for intraepithelial lesion/malignancy. However, the HPV test for high-risk types was positive. Which of the following is recommended? Repeat Pap smear in one year Repeat HPV testig for high-risk types in one year Repeat Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk types in 6 to 12 months Immediate colposcopy Endocervical currettage All of the following are true concerning HPV testing EXCEPT: The test is based on a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techinique Most patients with a positve result have a transient infection Can be used in conjuction with Pap smear for cervical cancer screening exclusively in women over the age of 30 A patient with an ASC-US Pap smear and a negative reflex HPV test (for high-risk types) can have her next smear in one year Over 80% of patients with a LSIL smear will have a positive HPV test for high-risk types A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
What percent of genital warts results from infection with HPV genotypes 6 to 11 ? 20% 50% 70% 90% The quadrivalent Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) vaccine protects against all of the following HPV DNA geontypes except? 16 6 18 11 33 A 43-year-old woman is found to have an abnormal Pap smear showing HSIL. She undergoes colposcopy showing all of the following epithilial abnormalities. The patient is very apprehensive and will allow only one biopsy. If you can do only one biopsy, which of the following would you biopsy: White epithelium Coarse mosaicism Punctation Abnormal (cork- screw) vessels A 17-year-old nulliparous woman has an abnormal Pap smear. Colposcopy with biopsies document CIN limited to the ectocervix without endocervical involvement. All of the following are true EXCEPT: In adolescents, the rate of resolution of CIN I is extremely high (>60%) CIN I should be followed by repeat smears at 6 and 12 months, or with high risk HPV testing in 12 months CIN 2 in adolescents should always be treated with excision or ablation CIN 3 in adolescents should be treated with excision or ablation Assuming CIN 2/ CIN 3 have been ruled out by colposcopy, the risk of developing CIN 2 or greater during the next two years is about 10% A 30-year-old multigravida is found to have an abnormal smear at 20 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following IS NOT TRUE: A pregnant patient with ASC-H, HSIL, atypical glandular cells or adenocarcinoma is situ should undergo colposcopy without endocervical curettage Purpose of colposcopy is to exclude invasive disease Managemant of pregnancy is different in patients with low- vs. high-grade dysplasia If colposcopy shows an area of cork-screw vessels on the cervix, this should be biopsied Patients with an ASC or LSIL smear have a low-risk of having invasive disease A 40-year-old HIV-positive G3P3 is found to have an abnormal PAP smear signed out as LSIL. Colposcopy with cervical biopsies demonstrated CIN I. Which of the following is NOT TRUE: Treatment of high-grade CIN should be pursued despite high recurrence rates Women who are HIV-positve are more likely to have positive surgical margins at excisional procedures, which may cause higher rates of recurrence Standard ablative or excisional treatment is recommended for women who are HIV-positive with documented CIN 2 or CIN 3 Since CIN 1infrequently progresses in women with women with HIV, observation appears safe provided there are no other indications for treatment HIV-positive patients, not currently treated with antiretroviral, with newly diagnosed CIN 3 may initially be treated for dysplasia only with initiation of antiretrovitals A 27-year old woman undergoes a LEEP excision of the cervical tranformation zone for a diagnosis CIN 2/3. All of the following are true with EXCEPTION of : The risk of cervical cancer after treatment of CIN 2 or CIN 3 is equal to that of the general patient population After LOOP excision, the patient can be followed with high-risk HPV testing in 6 months after the LOOP excision procedure; A negative result would allow annual screening therafter. Following a positive margin with LOOP excision, reexcision may be elected, but if undertaken should be done with knowledge that the most common outcome is absence of residual dysplasia Risk of recurrent dysplasia is 5 to 12% in women with positive LEEP margins Risk of recurrent dysplasia with negative LEEP margins is 2 to 3% A 40-year-old lawyer has an "routine annual" examination with a Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk Types (DNA with Pap). The Pap smear was interpreted as negative for intraepithelial lesion/malignancy. However, the HPV test for high-risk types was positive. Which of the following is recommended? Repeat Pap smear in one year Repeat HPV testig for high-risk types in one year Repeat Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk types in 6 to 12 months Immediate colposcopy Endocervical currettage All of the following are true concerning HPV testing EXCEPT: The test is based on a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techinique Most patients with a positve result have a transient infection Can be used in conjuction with Pap smear for cervical cancer screening exclusively in women over the age of 30 A patient with an ASC-US Pap smear and a negative reflex HPV test (for high-risk types) can have her next smear in one year Over 80% of patients with a LSIL smear will have a positive HPV test for high-risk types A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
The quadrivalent Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) vaccine protects against all of the following HPV DNA geontypes except? 16 6 18 11 33 A 43-year-old woman is found to have an abnormal Pap smear showing HSIL. She undergoes colposcopy showing all of the following epithilial abnormalities. The patient is very apprehensive and will allow only one biopsy. If you can do only one biopsy, which of the following would you biopsy: White epithelium Coarse mosaicism Punctation Abnormal (cork- screw) vessels A 17-year-old nulliparous woman has an abnormal Pap smear. Colposcopy with biopsies document CIN limited to the ectocervix without endocervical involvement. All of the following are true EXCEPT: In adolescents, the rate of resolution of CIN I is extremely high (>60%) CIN I should be followed by repeat smears at 6 and 12 months, or with high risk HPV testing in 12 months CIN 2 in adolescents should always be treated with excision or ablation CIN 3 in adolescents should be treated with excision or ablation Assuming CIN 2/ CIN 3 have been ruled out by colposcopy, the risk of developing CIN 2 or greater during the next two years is about 10% A 30-year-old multigravida is found to have an abnormal smear at 20 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following IS NOT TRUE: A pregnant patient with ASC-H, HSIL, atypical glandular cells or adenocarcinoma is situ should undergo colposcopy without endocervical curettage Purpose of colposcopy is to exclude invasive disease Managemant of pregnancy is different in patients with low- vs. high-grade dysplasia If colposcopy shows an area of cork-screw vessels on the cervix, this should be biopsied Patients with an ASC or LSIL smear have a low-risk of having invasive disease A 40-year-old HIV-positive G3P3 is found to have an abnormal PAP smear signed out as LSIL. Colposcopy with cervical biopsies demonstrated CIN I. Which of the following is NOT TRUE: Treatment of high-grade CIN should be pursued despite high recurrence rates Women who are HIV-positve are more likely to have positive surgical margins at excisional procedures, which may cause higher rates of recurrence Standard ablative or excisional treatment is recommended for women who are HIV-positive with documented CIN 2 or CIN 3 Since CIN 1infrequently progresses in women with women with HIV, observation appears safe provided there are no other indications for treatment HIV-positive patients, not currently treated with antiretroviral, with newly diagnosed CIN 3 may initially be treated for dysplasia only with initiation of antiretrovitals A 27-year old woman undergoes a LEEP excision of the cervical tranformation zone for a diagnosis CIN 2/3. All of the following are true with EXCEPTION of : The risk of cervical cancer after treatment of CIN 2 or CIN 3 is equal to that of the general patient population After LOOP excision, the patient can be followed with high-risk HPV testing in 6 months after the LOOP excision procedure; A negative result would allow annual screening therafter. Following a positive margin with LOOP excision, reexcision may be elected, but if undertaken should be done with knowledge that the most common outcome is absence of residual dysplasia Risk of recurrent dysplasia is 5 to 12% in women with positive LEEP margins Risk of recurrent dysplasia with negative LEEP margins is 2 to 3% A 40-year-old lawyer has an "routine annual" examination with a Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk Types (DNA with Pap). The Pap smear was interpreted as negative for intraepithelial lesion/malignancy. However, the HPV test for high-risk types was positive. Which of the following is recommended? Repeat Pap smear in one year Repeat HPV testig for high-risk types in one year Repeat Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk types in 6 to 12 months Immediate colposcopy Endocervical currettage All of the following are true concerning HPV testing EXCEPT: The test is based on a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techinique Most patients with a positve result have a transient infection Can be used in conjuction with Pap smear for cervical cancer screening exclusively in women over the age of 30 A patient with an ASC-US Pap smear and a negative reflex HPV test (for high-risk types) can have her next smear in one year Over 80% of patients with a LSIL smear will have a positive HPV test for high-risk types A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
A 43-year-old woman is found to have an abnormal Pap smear showing HSIL. She undergoes colposcopy showing all of the following epithilial abnormalities. The patient is very apprehensive and will allow only one biopsy. If you can do only one biopsy, which of the following would you biopsy: White epithelium Coarse mosaicism Punctation Abnormal (cork- screw) vessels A 17-year-old nulliparous woman has an abnormal Pap smear. Colposcopy with biopsies document CIN limited to the ectocervix without endocervical involvement. All of the following are true EXCEPT: In adolescents, the rate of resolution of CIN I is extremely high (>60%) CIN I should be followed by repeat smears at 6 and 12 months, or with high risk HPV testing in 12 months CIN 2 in adolescents should always be treated with excision or ablation CIN 3 in adolescents should be treated with excision or ablation Assuming CIN 2/ CIN 3 have been ruled out by colposcopy, the risk of developing CIN 2 or greater during the next two years is about 10% A 30-year-old multigravida is found to have an abnormal smear at 20 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following IS NOT TRUE: A pregnant patient with ASC-H, HSIL, atypical glandular cells or adenocarcinoma is situ should undergo colposcopy without endocervical curettage Purpose of colposcopy is to exclude invasive disease Managemant of pregnancy is different in patients with low- vs. high-grade dysplasia If colposcopy shows an area of cork-screw vessels on the cervix, this should be biopsied Patients with an ASC or LSIL smear have a low-risk of having invasive disease A 40-year-old HIV-positive G3P3 is found to have an abnormal PAP smear signed out as LSIL. Colposcopy with cervical biopsies demonstrated CIN I. Which of the following is NOT TRUE: Treatment of high-grade CIN should be pursued despite high recurrence rates Women who are HIV-positve are more likely to have positive surgical margins at excisional procedures, which may cause higher rates of recurrence Standard ablative or excisional treatment is recommended for women who are HIV-positive with documented CIN 2 or CIN 3 Since CIN 1infrequently progresses in women with women with HIV, observation appears safe provided there are no other indications for treatment HIV-positive patients, not currently treated with antiretroviral, with newly diagnosed CIN 3 may initially be treated for dysplasia only with initiation of antiretrovitals A 27-year old woman undergoes a LEEP excision of the cervical tranformation zone for a diagnosis CIN 2/3. All of the following are true with EXCEPTION of : The risk of cervical cancer after treatment of CIN 2 or CIN 3 is equal to that of the general patient population After LOOP excision, the patient can be followed with high-risk HPV testing in 6 months after the LOOP excision procedure; A negative result would allow annual screening therafter. Following a positive margin with LOOP excision, reexcision may be elected, but if undertaken should be done with knowledge that the most common outcome is absence of residual dysplasia Risk of recurrent dysplasia is 5 to 12% in women with positive LEEP margins Risk of recurrent dysplasia with negative LEEP margins is 2 to 3% A 40-year-old lawyer has an "routine annual" examination with a Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk Types (DNA with Pap). The Pap smear was interpreted as negative for intraepithelial lesion/malignancy. However, the HPV test for high-risk types was positive. Which of the following is recommended? Repeat Pap smear in one year Repeat HPV testig for high-risk types in one year Repeat Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk types in 6 to 12 months Immediate colposcopy Endocervical currettage All of the following are true concerning HPV testing EXCEPT: The test is based on a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techinique Most patients with a positve result have a transient infection Can be used in conjuction with Pap smear for cervical cancer screening exclusively in women over the age of 30 A patient with an ASC-US Pap smear and a negative reflex HPV test (for high-risk types) can have her next smear in one year Over 80% of patients with a LSIL smear will have a positive HPV test for high-risk types A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
A 17-year-old nulliparous woman has an abnormal Pap smear. Colposcopy with biopsies document CIN limited to the ectocervix without endocervical involvement. All of the following are true EXCEPT: In adolescents, the rate of resolution of CIN I is extremely high (>60%) CIN I should be followed by repeat smears at 6 and 12 months, or with high risk HPV testing in 12 months CIN 2 in adolescents should always be treated with excision or ablation CIN 3 in adolescents should be treated with excision or ablation Assuming CIN 2/ CIN 3 have been ruled out by colposcopy, the risk of developing CIN 2 or greater during the next two years is about 10% A 30-year-old multigravida is found to have an abnormal smear at 20 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following IS NOT TRUE: A pregnant patient with ASC-H, HSIL, atypical glandular cells or adenocarcinoma is situ should undergo colposcopy without endocervical curettage Purpose of colposcopy is to exclude invasive disease Managemant of pregnancy is different in patients with low- vs. high-grade dysplasia If colposcopy shows an area of cork-screw vessels on the cervix, this should be biopsied Patients with an ASC or LSIL smear have a low-risk of having invasive disease A 40-year-old HIV-positive G3P3 is found to have an abnormal PAP smear signed out as LSIL. Colposcopy with cervical biopsies demonstrated CIN I. Which of the following is NOT TRUE: Treatment of high-grade CIN should be pursued despite high recurrence rates Women who are HIV-positve are more likely to have positive surgical margins at excisional procedures, which may cause higher rates of recurrence Standard ablative or excisional treatment is recommended for women who are HIV-positive with documented CIN 2 or CIN 3 Since CIN 1infrequently progresses in women with women with HIV, observation appears safe provided there are no other indications for treatment HIV-positive patients, not currently treated with antiretroviral, with newly diagnosed CIN 3 may initially be treated for dysplasia only with initiation of antiretrovitals A 27-year old woman undergoes a LEEP excision of the cervical tranformation zone for a diagnosis CIN 2/3. All of the following are true with EXCEPTION of : The risk of cervical cancer after treatment of CIN 2 or CIN 3 is equal to that of the general patient population After LOOP excision, the patient can be followed with high-risk HPV testing in 6 months after the LOOP excision procedure; A negative result would allow annual screening therafter. Following a positive margin with LOOP excision, reexcision may be elected, but if undertaken should be done with knowledge that the most common outcome is absence of residual dysplasia Risk of recurrent dysplasia is 5 to 12% in women with positive LEEP margins Risk of recurrent dysplasia with negative LEEP margins is 2 to 3% A 40-year-old lawyer has an "routine annual" examination with a Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk Types (DNA with Pap). The Pap smear was interpreted as negative for intraepithelial lesion/malignancy. However, the HPV test for high-risk types was positive. Which of the following is recommended? Repeat Pap smear in one year Repeat HPV testig for high-risk types in one year Repeat Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk types in 6 to 12 months Immediate colposcopy Endocervical currettage All of the following are true concerning HPV testing EXCEPT: The test is based on a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techinique Most patients with a positve result have a transient infection Can be used in conjuction with Pap smear for cervical cancer screening exclusively in women over the age of 30 A patient with an ASC-US Pap smear and a negative reflex HPV test (for high-risk types) can have her next smear in one year Over 80% of patients with a LSIL smear will have a positive HPV test for high-risk types A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
A 30-year-old multigravida is found to have an abnormal smear at 20 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following IS NOT TRUE: A pregnant patient with ASC-H, HSIL, atypical glandular cells or adenocarcinoma is situ should undergo colposcopy without endocervical curettage Purpose of colposcopy is to exclude invasive disease Managemant of pregnancy is different in patients with low- vs. high-grade dysplasia If colposcopy shows an area of cork-screw vessels on the cervix, this should be biopsied Patients with an ASC or LSIL smear have a low-risk of having invasive disease A 40-year-old HIV-positive G3P3 is found to have an abnormal PAP smear signed out as LSIL. Colposcopy with cervical biopsies demonstrated CIN I. Which of the following is NOT TRUE: Treatment of high-grade CIN should be pursued despite high recurrence rates Women who are HIV-positve are more likely to have positive surgical margins at excisional procedures, which may cause higher rates of recurrence Standard ablative or excisional treatment is recommended for women who are HIV-positive with documented CIN 2 or CIN 3 Since CIN 1infrequently progresses in women with women with HIV, observation appears safe provided there are no other indications for treatment HIV-positive patients, not currently treated with antiretroviral, with newly diagnosed CIN 3 may initially be treated for dysplasia only with initiation of antiretrovitals A 27-year old woman undergoes a LEEP excision of the cervical tranformation zone for a diagnosis CIN 2/3. All of the following are true with EXCEPTION of : The risk of cervical cancer after treatment of CIN 2 or CIN 3 is equal to that of the general patient population After LOOP excision, the patient can be followed with high-risk HPV testing in 6 months after the LOOP excision procedure; A negative result would allow annual screening therafter. Following a positive margin with LOOP excision, reexcision may be elected, but if undertaken should be done with knowledge that the most common outcome is absence of residual dysplasia Risk of recurrent dysplasia is 5 to 12% in women with positive LEEP margins Risk of recurrent dysplasia with negative LEEP margins is 2 to 3% A 40-year-old lawyer has an "routine annual" examination with a Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk Types (DNA with Pap). The Pap smear was interpreted as negative for intraepithelial lesion/malignancy. However, the HPV test for high-risk types was positive. Which of the following is recommended? Repeat Pap smear in one year Repeat HPV testig for high-risk types in one year Repeat Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk types in 6 to 12 months Immediate colposcopy Endocervical currettage All of the following are true concerning HPV testing EXCEPT: The test is based on a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techinique Most patients with a positve result have a transient infection Can be used in conjuction with Pap smear for cervical cancer screening exclusively in women over the age of 30 A patient with an ASC-US Pap smear and a negative reflex HPV test (for high-risk types) can have her next smear in one year Over 80% of patients with a LSIL smear will have a positive HPV test for high-risk types A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
A 40-year-old HIV-positive G3P3 is found to have an abnormal PAP smear signed out as LSIL. Colposcopy with cervical biopsies demonstrated CIN I. Which of the following is NOT TRUE: Treatment of high-grade CIN should be pursued despite high recurrence rates Women who are HIV-positve are more likely to have positive surgical margins at excisional procedures, which may cause higher rates of recurrence Standard ablative or excisional treatment is recommended for women who are HIV-positive with documented CIN 2 or CIN 3 Since CIN 1infrequently progresses in women with women with HIV, observation appears safe provided there are no other indications for treatment HIV-positive patients, not currently treated with antiretroviral, with newly diagnosed CIN 3 may initially be treated for dysplasia only with initiation of antiretrovitals A 27-year old woman undergoes a LEEP excision of the cervical tranformation zone for a diagnosis CIN 2/3. All of the following are true with EXCEPTION of : The risk of cervical cancer after treatment of CIN 2 or CIN 3 is equal to that of the general patient population After LOOP excision, the patient can be followed with high-risk HPV testing in 6 months after the LOOP excision procedure; A negative result would allow annual screening therafter. Following a positive margin with LOOP excision, reexcision may be elected, but if undertaken should be done with knowledge that the most common outcome is absence of residual dysplasia Risk of recurrent dysplasia is 5 to 12% in women with positive LEEP margins Risk of recurrent dysplasia with negative LEEP margins is 2 to 3% A 40-year-old lawyer has an "routine annual" examination with a Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk Types (DNA with Pap). The Pap smear was interpreted as negative for intraepithelial lesion/malignancy. However, the HPV test for high-risk types was positive. Which of the following is recommended? Repeat Pap smear in one year Repeat HPV testig for high-risk types in one year Repeat Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk types in 6 to 12 months Immediate colposcopy Endocervical currettage All of the following are true concerning HPV testing EXCEPT: The test is based on a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techinique Most patients with a positve result have a transient infection Can be used in conjuction with Pap smear for cervical cancer screening exclusively in women over the age of 30 A patient with an ASC-US Pap smear and a negative reflex HPV test (for high-risk types) can have her next smear in one year Over 80% of patients with a LSIL smear will have a positive HPV test for high-risk types A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
A 27-year old woman undergoes a LEEP excision of the cervical tranformation zone for a diagnosis CIN 2/3. All of the following are true with EXCEPTION of : The risk of cervical cancer after treatment of CIN 2 or CIN 3 is equal to that of the general patient population After LOOP excision, the patient can be followed with high-risk HPV testing in 6 months after the LOOP excision procedure; A negative result would allow annual screening therafter. Following a positive margin with LOOP excision, reexcision may be elected, but if undertaken should be done with knowledge that the most common outcome is absence of residual dysplasia Risk of recurrent dysplasia is 5 to 12% in women with positive LEEP margins Risk of recurrent dysplasia with negative LEEP margins is 2 to 3% A 40-year-old lawyer has an "routine annual" examination with a Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk Types (DNA with Pap). The Pap smear was interpreted as negative for intraepithelial lesion/malignancy. However, the HPV test for high-risk types was positive. Which of the following is recommended? Repeat Pap smear in one year Repeat HPV testig for high-risk types in one year Repeat Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk types in 6 to 12 months Immediate colposcopy Endocervical currettage All of the following are true concerning HPV testing EXCEPT: The test is based on a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techinique Most patients with a positve result have a transient infection Can be used in conjuction with Pap smear for cervical cancer screening exclusively in women over the age of 30 A patient with an ASC-US Pap smear and a negative reflex HPV test (for high-risk types) can have her next smear in one year Over 80% of patients with a LSIL smear will have a positive HPV test for high-risk types A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
A 40-year-old lawyer has an "routine annual" examination with a Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk Types (DNA with Pap). The Pap smear was interpreted as negative for intraepithelial lesion/malignancy. However, the HPV test for high-risk types was positive. Which of the following is recommended? Repeat Pap smear in one year Repeat HPV testig for high-risk types in one year Repeat Pap smear and HPV testing for high-risk types in 6 to 12 months Immediate colposcopy Endocervical currettage All of the following are true concerning HPV testing EXCEPT: The test is based on a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techinique Most patients with a positve result have a transient infection Can be used in conjuction with Pap smear for cervical cancer screening exclusively in women over the age of 30 A patient with an ASC-US Pap smear and a negative reflex HPV test (for high-risk types) can have her next smear in one year Over 80% of patients with a LSIL smear will have a positive HPV test for high-risk types A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
All of the following are true concerning HPV testing EXCEPT: The test is based on a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techinique Most patients with a positve result have a transient infection Can be used in conjuction with Pap smear for cervical cancer screening exclusively in women over the age of 30 A patient with an ASC-US Pap smear and a negative reflex HPV test (for high-risk types) can have her next smear in one year Over 80% of patients with a LSIL smear will have a positive HPV test for high-risk types A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
A 25-year-old G1P1 had an abnormal Pap smear signed out as ASC-H. She underwent a colposcopy with endocervical curettage and ectocervical biopsies. All of the biopsies were negative for dysplasia or carcinoma. Suggested management at this point would be: Loop excision Cold-knife conization HPV testing for high-risk types in 12 months HPV testing for high-risk types in 2 months Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
Each of the following is true about adenocarcinoma in situ of the cervix EXCEPT: Rarely co-exists with squamous dysplasia Requires conization to rule out invasive diease Skip lesions have been reported in patients with negative conization margins "Young" patieants desiring conservative therapy with uterine preservation, need to have negative cone margins Patients completing childbearing (and negative cone margins) are probably best treated with hysterectomy
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